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#1 Allen Achterberg

Allen Achterberg
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Posted 12 July 2005 - 02:56 AM

okay, I'm a little confused at the moment. could be because I'm tired and the chick I'm currently on the phone with is giving me a headache and other problems and she doesnt understand that all I care about at the moment is understanding WHY an anamorphic 100mm(composing for 2.40) lens has the same compositional equivilance to a standard 50mm(composing for 1.85) Lens. can anyone explain this to me a little, I'd really appreciate it...

thanks,
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#2 David Mullen ASC

David Mullen ASC
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Posted 12 July 2005 - 03:06 AM

Anamorphic lenses for 35mm have a 2X horizontal compression (squeeze), doubling the view of the lens, so a 100mm anamorphic lenses "sees" the same horizontal view as a 50mm spherical lens, but vertically sees the same as a 100mm spherical lens. It's like a wide-angle adaptor on a lens but only increasing the view in one direction (horizontally.)
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